“Treatment-naive HR (IPSS-R >3; n=21) and HMA r/r (n=32) MDS patients were recruited in the Phase 1/2 BEXMAB study.”
Sometimes HR MDS n=20 and sometimes 21. Fluctuations of one patient can be explained by this.
The difference abstract/poster 17% vs 57% is big. This is a bigger difference for which a layperson cannot find an explanation. Since the difference is big, an explanation surely exists. It would be interesting to hear, but this does not yet arouse distrust in me.
Edit: 17% probably means 17% of the HR MDS group, not from those 6-7. EDIT2: not really, 17% is not explained by that.